Why Is There So Much Confusion Regarding LSD Possession/sale Penalties?
Question by eclecticzebra: Why is there so much confusion regarding LSD possession/sale penalties?
I have heard many urban legends surrounding drug use and the likes, but it is completely absurd that people would think that possession with intent to sell “acid” can incur manslaughter charges. Not one other infraction (in US law) that I am aware of allows for a completely unrelated charge to be brought against the accused. I understand that they both carry similar first offense sentences (5-10/15 yrs), but anyone who I try to explain this to cuts me off explaining that “no, you actually get slapped with “manslaughter” charges”. Perhaps I need new, more intelligent friends haha… Anyone have any insight into why?
In response to Ashley: No it’s not the same as involuntarily feeding someone poison, because said consumer ingested the LSD of his/her own free will. The same could be said of a car salesman, should the buyer die in a wreck, yet the law does not go after the salesman. Also, there has been only one “supposed” death from overdose of LSD. The man intravenously injected himself with the equivalent of 3000+ hits of the drug.
Best answer:
Answer by Captain_Axel
Many drug users are very ignorant, and the same has been said about possession of Ecstasy. I used to do a lot of Ecstasy and this conversation would come up at raves. I’ve also heard that its an attempted manslaughter charge that you get. Really? So the charge would be trying to accidentally kill someone? Dumb raver no, stop doing drugs and think right? I’m sure somewhere someone got the same punishment and the same charge mixed up.
Answer by Ashley
If someone dies from using acid, then the person that sold it to him could be charged with murder, but it would never go through which is why they charge with man slaughter. It’s like feeding someone poison, in the eyes of the law anyway.
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